The xat sample paper 1 instructions – Please read these carefully before attempting the test



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THE XAT SAMPLE PAPER 1

INSTRUCTIONS – Please read these carefully before attempting the test

1. This test is based on pattern of previous years’ XAT papers.

2. There are three sections.

Section 1- English & Reading Comprehension (60 questions)

Section 2-General Awareness(50 Questions)

Section 3- Quantitative Ability & Analytical ability (60 questions)

3. The total time allotted is 2 hours exactly. Please note your start time and end time

on the answer sheet. Do not take more than 2 hours, or you will get a wrong

assessment.20 minutes for writing an essay was allowed after writing the objective

paper.


4. Please fill all the details, as asked on top of the answer sheet.

5. Please try to maximize your attempt overall, but you need to do well in all sections.

6. There is 1 mark for every right answer and 0.25 negative mark for every wrong

one.

7. There is no sectional time limit.

8. Since it is a time constrained test and you have 2 hours, and all questions carry equal

marks, please do not get stuck on any question, move fast to try and do easier ones.

9. Please do all scratch work on paper only, no extra sheets to be used. Put all your

answers on the answer sheet.

10. Relax. You are competing against yourself.

SECTION 1

Directions for questions 1 –20: Each of the two passages given below is followed by five questions.

Choose the best answer to each question.



PASSAGE-I

A multi-sectoral survey done by the International Clinical Epidemiologists Network (INCLEN)

has found that country to popular belief, domestic, violence in India cut across social and

educational status. Economic and gender relations are undergoing changes, with an increasing

number of women entering the formal and informal labour markets. This casts the woman in the

role of breadwinner as opposed to home-market, leading to increasing use of violence as a

mechanism to subjugate her.

The study found that women-educated and illiterate, from rural and urban areas, engaged in

paid and unpaid labour-suffer varying degrees of physical and psychological violence by their

husbands. Two out of every five married women reported being hit, kicked, beaten or slapped by

their husbands. Fifty percent of the women experiencing physical violence also reported physical

abuse during pregnancy. A respondent from a slum colony in Bhopal said that she was beaten

not only by her husband but also by all members of his family.

In the lower economic strata, abused women typically lead a complicated life. They work as

domestic help, which often means unsympathetic employers. Add to this small children who

need attention and alcoholic husbands, and it is a vicious cycle.

Why do women face violence at the hands of those who are supposed to provide them security?

The range of ‘causes’ varies from not cooking on time to mismanagement of the household to

neglect of children. In short, non-adherence to gender roles and responsibilities leads to violence,

or the threat of it, is used very often to ensure ‘discipline’, which either maintains gender roles, or

prevents changes in gender relations. For example, alcohol and dowry have long been associated

with violence, but then, why is it that men beat only their wives and children after drinking?

Why is it that women have to bring a host of material possessions to establish and maintain their

status within the matrimonial homes? Both these phenomena reflect women’s subordination

within marriage, a strongly endorsed gender role in society.

One arena in which gender roles are undergoing rapid change is the economic sphere, with

increasing numbers of women entering the formal and informal labour market. The study found

that Nagpur, over90 percent of the women who had reported experiencing violence were

involved in paid work. The Nagpur data revealed another significant point. More abuse if their

husbands were unemployed. This suggests that working women suffer more abuse if their

husbands are also unemployed. Gender gap in employment acts as a further trigger for domestic

violence.

This should, however, not be interpreted to mean that providing employment opportunities to

unemployed men would automatically ensure reduction in violence in against women. On the

contrary, violence is frequently used as a mechanism to deal with any attempt at reversal in

gender role, which pits ‘man-the –bread-earner’ against ‘woman–the–home-market’.

In a similar vein, the recent National Family Health found that women working for money are

more likely to have been beaten in the last 12 months. A respondent from rural Lucknow, sharing

her story of marital abuse, said, “He insults me in front of my relatives and neighbours. He used

to beat me also but for the past year that has stopped, mainly because he is now in a better job

and earning better.”

It is also important to view these findings against the recent trend of employed women seeking

help. A recent study by the Tata Institute of Social Sciences, Mumbai, found that the number of

employed women seeking help at the special cell for women and that women and children went

up with increasing year of experiencing violence. Case-workers at the special cell hypothesise

that women in paid employment probably have a wider network of support, which enable them

to explore alternative options over a longer period of time. That women in regular employment

are turning up for counseling and help suggest that they are less willing to tolerate domestic

violence.

Economic forces are opening at two dichotomous level that expose women to the risk of violence.

Liberalisation has resulted in increased entry of women into the labour market- albeit in the

informal sector- leading to a re-negotiation of gender roles. However, the same economic forces

are also promoting a consumerist lifestyle that reinforces regressive gender roles, placing women

at greater risk as regards domestic violence.

Middle-class women today are being increasingly targeted as the ultimate consumers. The

message is to aspire to a lifestyle of acquisition; and women are positioned as instruments

through which such acquisition possible. This acquisition is projected by an image of the savvy

working wife or a wife who is able to bring all this into the matrimonial home through dowry.

In the changing economic scenario, dowry has entered into societies where it was hitherto

unheard of. A whole body of literature documents this emerging phenomenon in various parts of

India, like Kerala and Tehri Garhwal. For example, the INCLEN survey found some of the

highest rates of dowry dissatisfaction and the reporting of new dowry demands in

Thiruvanthapuram in Kerala.

It is essential to take cognizance of the wide prevalence of domestic violence, especially as a

response to changing gender roles- roles that are being both challenged and reinforced by rapid

social and economic transitions. Yet planners and policy-markers position many of these

transitions as inevitable consequences of development.

Is domestic violence, them, an inevitable fallout of development? The answer is a categorical no.

A development paradigm in which domestic violence is a ‘by-product’, is antithetical to the very

goals it seeks to achieve. If, as Novel laureate Amartya Sen says, development is the realization of

human rights, then the existence of domestic violence is a fundamental barrier to development.

1. Chances of domestic violence are higher in case of________ wives and ________

husbands.

(1) unemployed, poor

(2) employed, poor

(3) unemployed, employed

(4) employed, unemployed

2. The male psychology behind domestic violence could be

(1) a difficulty in accepting the wife in a non traditional role

(2) outward manifestation of poverty-induced frustrations

(3) greed and dowry

(4) seeking an outlet for the natural animalistic instinct for violence

3. The institution of dowry, according to the author, is a proof of

(1) masculine

(2) societal greed

(3) lower status of women in marriage

(4) lack of social change in India

4. Why, according to the author, improvement in employment situation for the males will

still not solve the problem?

(1) gap in earning will still be a factor.

(2) Masculine need to subjugate working women will still remain.

(3) Drinking and dowry problems won’t yet be solved.

(4) All the above

5. The institution of dowry, according to the author, is governed by the dictates of

I. Tradition II. economics of greed

(1) I only (2) I only (3) I and II (4) Neither I nor II

6. The consumerist lifestyle projects women today as a

(1) symbol of independence (2) subject for violence

(3) tool for dowry (4) means for acquisition

7. The author’s conclusions about women turning to counseling makes which of the

following assumptions?

(1) Economic security emboldens women.

(2) Desperation leads women to turn to counseling.

(3) Women won’t tolerate violence beyond a point.

(4) Drinking is abhorred by women in general.

8. The author can most strongly criticized on which of the following grounds?

(1) a female chauvinistic view

(2) ultra-feminism

(3) proposing no concrete solutions

(4) stereotying the male species

9. “The author suggests that today’s advertisements of products are also promoting

dowry.” In the light of the given passage, this statement

(1) is probably true

(2) is definitely true

(3) Can be neither established nor rejected

(4) is definitely false

10. According to the author, domestic violence cuts across women

(1) is predominant in lower classes

(2) is predominant in kerala and tehri - Garhwal

(3) cuts across class barriers

(4) and is a fall out of development

PASSAGE-2

No effort is made to understand the reasons for these recurring disasters. Nobody has or the time

or the inclination to understand the reasons. Unless and until we make an effort to understand

these disasters will continue year after year with ever-increasing intensity.

The paramount need of day is “information, education, and planning”. Information would mean

gathering data from all over the world about environmental degradation, loss of forest cover or

mangroves, and pollution of all kinds.

Education would mean informing the rules the mankind the reasons for these distressed.

People must be made aware of the phenomenon of global warming. The vaporous by products of

human activities create gas, like carbon dioxide-CO2 – which traps vast amount of heat resulting

in the increase of earth’s temperature, which boosts sea-level, shifts seasons. Unseasonal floods,

rains, droughts etc. are the direct pattern of seasons but not so under E1 Nino. Increase of two

degrees in global warming can cause a havoc.

Greenhouse effect is another phenomenon, which haunts us, incoming sunlight has an energy

equivalent to about 3,100 watts bulbs per sq yard. Lower air layers, which contain a number of

gases, water vapour, CO2 and many others, trap the heat when these gases warm up, some of the

heat is radiated back to earth ‘s surface. This is broadly known as green effect.

CO2 emission accounts for 60 percent of warming and has a life span of about 100 years in the

atmosphere. Water vapour in contrast has a life span of eight days only.

Ozone-level depletion is another cause of series concern as it causes killer cancer for which as yet

there is no cure.

Once we understand the causes, it is easy to take to remedial measures. This brings us to

planning.

Effluent management planning is the dire need of the day. There should be steering committee of

governmental ministers, scientists, industries, NGOs, to devise means to develop and install

machineries to prevent major cause of polluting effluents mentioned earlier. Within a time-bound

framework, these devices must be installed, failing which the erring industries must be closed

down. No new industries should be permitted without efficient effluent management and

treatment. Chemical pesticides should be phased out gradually. Indian farmer for centuries

depended upon organic fertilizers. Let us opt for them again.

Recently, studies showed that mother ‘s milk has DDT contents, obviously from consuming food

having agrochemicals or pesticides. The indiscriminate use of pesticides kills both predatory and

beneficial insects also. Let us bring back use of Neem for pesticides, which kills only predatory

insects, or Tulsi for cleaning the atmosphere from suffocating pollution. Planting these trees on

war footing in the urgent need of the day. A country needs more than 30 percent forest cover.

Trees retain water in soil and act as buffers against the waves. They are necessary for maintaining

the regular cycle of seasons. India has less than 20 percent of forest cover.

All this is possible if we opt for information technology. Vast sources of information are

available. Let us use them to bring the knowledge to the doorstep of a common man, the

executive, the politicians and the judiciary.

Environment is a finely-tuned and extremely well –balanced ecological mechanism. Flora and

fauna, birds, animals and, of course, humans play a vital role. Touch one adversely and all suffer.

We are courting irreversible disaster.

We have turned our back on Nature. Let us go back to Nature- at least for our survival.

11. According to the author, the various constituents of the environment are

(1) Supplementary (2) independent

(3) mutually in exclusive (4) interdependent

12. According to the author, the first step toward any remedy is

(1) understanding the cause (2) analysis of the existent resources

(3) planning (4) sound implementation of ideas

13. Which of the following is not inferable from the passage?

I. Cancer is Incurable.

II. The present nature of men’s interaction is unsustainable.

III. Mother’s milk is not advisable.

(1) I only (2) I and II (3) II and III (4) All I, II and III

14. Which is the main culprit that causes greenhouse effect?

(1) incoming sunlight (2) trapping gases

(3) gaseous radiation (4) lower air-layers

15. India’s forest cover is roughly

(1) half of what is needed (2) adequate

(3) adequate for mangroves (4) None of these

16. Which of the following would not get the author’s support, in your view?

(1) genetically modified rice for eating

(2) food grains produced by robots

(3) drinks containing artificial flavours and preservations

(4) All of the above

17. The superiority of neem as a preside is based upon the fact that neem products

(1) are easy to use (2) are easily produced

(3) kill only pesticides (4) are biodegradable

18. The author’s ecological perspective on industries postulates that

(1) NGOs should monitor the environmental angle of industrial activity.

(2) Governmental influence on industrial awareness about environmental matters

needs to be stepped up

(3) Industries should bear the burden of cleaning their effluents.

(4) Industries should switch over to natural products while manufacturing products.

19. Which of the following has not been covered by the author?

I. global warming

II. noise pollution

III. water pollution

(1) I and II (2) Only II (3) Only III (4) II and III

20. The author’s passage can be said to be an attempt at

(1) analysis (2) expression of despair

(3) intellectual pursuit (4) exhortation

Directions: Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word or group of

words given in capitals in each question.

21. STABLE

(1) Uniform (2) Fluctuating (3) Permanent (4) Unwavering

22. EXPLICIT

(1) Clean (2) Implied (3) Obvious (4) Specifically

23. ADVOCATES

(1) Lawyers (2) Experts (3) Recommends (4) Loyalists.

24. MANAGED

(1) Performed (2) Maneuvered (3) Trained (4) Organised

25. PRETENSIONS

(1) Claims (2) Access (3) Apathy (4) Permissiveness

26. SUBTLE

(1) Innocent (2)Elusive (3) Dangerous (4) Insidious.

27. FAKE

(1) Original (2) Imitation (3) Trustworthy (4) Loyal

28. INFAMY

(1) Dishonour (2) Glory (3) Integrity (4) Reputation

29. REPEAL

(1) Sanction (2) Perpetuate (3) Pass (4) Cancel

30. EMBEZZLE

(1) Misappropriate (2) Balance

(3) Remunerate (4) Clear

31. CORPULENT

(1) lean (2) Gaunt (3) Emaciated (4) Obese

32. AUGUST

(1) Common (2) Ridiculous (3) Dignified (4) Petty

33. LAUNCH

(1) Review (2) Begin (3) Propel (4) Push

34. RELIED

(1) Emphasised (2) Depended (3) Convinced (4) Followed

35. OBTAINED

(1) Combined (2) Procured (3) Acquired (4) Followed

36. GARNISH

(1) Paint (2) Garner (3) Adorn (4) Abuse

37. FRUGALITY

(1) Foolishness (2) Extremity (3) Enthusiasm (4) Sparing

38. FORAY

(1) Incursion (2) Contest (3) Ranger (4) Intuition.

39. GARRULITY

(1) Credulity (2) Sensility

(3) Loquaciousness (4) Speciousness

40. FURORE

(1) Excitement (2) Worry (3) Flux (4) Anteroom



Directions: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the

sentence meaningfully complete.

41. Indications are that the Government is …... to the prospect of granting bonus to the

striking employees.

(1) Aligned (2) Obliged (3) Reconciled (4) Relieved

42. Shivalal ……. classical music. He always prefers Bhimsen Joshi to Asha Bhosale and

Pundit Jasraj to Kumar Sanu.

(1) Adores (2) Apprehends (3) Encompasses (4) Cultivates

43. As a general rule, politicians do not ...... centrestage.

(1) Forward (2) Forbid (3) Forgive (4) Forsake

44. The ...... study on import of natural gas from Iran through a pipeline would be completed

shortly.


(1) Natural (2) Calculated (3) Economic (4) Feasibility

45. His party is solely to be blamed for the political ...... in the country.

(1) Devaluation (2) Revival (3) Advocacy (4) Stalemate

46. We still have not given our …… to conduct the survey of natural resources in our state.

(1) Projection (2) Consent (3) Request (4) Compliance

47. We cannot go on strike every year. Now that we have gone on strike we must ...... this

issue.

(1) Clinch (2) Culminate (3) Cross (4) Canvass



48. Man is a/an ....... creature ; however, he is more in need of mental companionship than

of physical companionship.

(1) Egoistic (2) Biological (3) Emotional (4) Gregarious

49. He is the best man for this job. He has mental ...... to carry it out.

(1) Predilection (2) Durability (3) Adroitness (4) Persuasion

50. I was totally ...... by his line of thinking and could not put forth any argument.

(1) Demolished (2) Non-plussed (3) Exhausted (4) Refuted

Directions: In the following questions choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of

the word given in capitals.

51. PERNICIOUS

(1) Innocuous (2) Healthy (3) Hygienic (4) Fine

52. CAPTIVATED

(1) Repelled (2) Seized (3)Free (4) Enchanted

53. OVERT

(1) Unambiguous (2) Concealed

(3) Manifest (4) Inexplicable

54. SUBSTANTIAL

(1) Extensive (2) Independent (3) Manifest (4) Minimal

55. LATENT

(1) Concealed (2) Real (3) Apparent (4) Dubious

56. DAZZLING

(1) Glaring (2) Unscrupulous

(3) Unexposable (4) Unnoticeable

57. REPRESS

(1) Inhibit (2) Liberate (3) Curb (4) Quell

58. TANGIBLE

(1) Ethereal (2) Concrete (3) Actual (4) Solid

59. ZENITH

(1) Acme (2) Top (3) Nadir (4) Pinnacle

60. VANITY

(1) Pride (2) Humility (3) Conceit (4) Ostentation



SECTION 2

.1. Match the following. Column-I represents information technology companies and

Column-II their promoters.

Column-I Column-II

A. HCL Tech i. Shiv Nader

B. i2 Technology ii Sanjeev Sidhu

C. Sycamore iii. Gururaj Deshpande

Choose the answer from the following choices:

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii

(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii (4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii

.2. Jack Welch is considered to be an all time best CEO. He retired as the chief executive

officer of

(1) Ford Motors (2) Daimler Crysller

(3) General Electric (GE) (4) none of these

.3. D R Mehta is the former chairman of

(1) SBI (2) Maruti Udyog Ltd (MUL)

(3) Sebi (4) none of these

.4. Euro-I, Euro-II, Euro-Ill norms are related to

(1) automobile engine (2) computer chips

(3) auto fuel (4) none of these

5. Which among the following companies is/are operating in the fieid of FMCG (fast

moving consumer goods)?

(A) HLL (B) P&G (C) Britannia (D) Nirma

Choose the answer from the following choices:

(1) A&B (2) A, Band C (3) A, B and D (4) All of these

.6. Which among the following provides estimates for gross domestic product (GDP) of

India?


(1) National Sample Survey (NSS)

(2) Indian Statistical Institute (ISI)

(3) Central Statistical Organisation (CSO)

(4) None of these

7. Fiscal deficit refers to the

(1) final revenue deficit of the government

(2) actual deficit of the government

(3) deficit related to non-tax revenue

(4) none of these

8. Service tax is a

(1) direct tax (2) indirect tax

(3) regressive tax (4) progressive tax

9. Tadao Chino is the present president of the

(1) UNESCO

(2) UNDP

(3) Asian Development Bank (ADB)

(4) World Bank

10. On which among the following dates the Tenth Plan has/had taken off?

(1) April 1,2002 (2) July 1,2002

(3) October 1,2002 (4) April 1,2003

11. Which among the following states for the first lime has removed the veil of secrecy over

budget preparation and released the 'draft budget' for the year 2002-03 for public debate?

(1) Karnataka (2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Orissa (4) Chhattishgarh

12. Which among the following states is first to introduce tele-agriculture to enable the

state's farmers to refer their problems to experts on phone without paying any charge?

(1) Karnataka (2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Orissa (4) Haryna

.

13. Which among the following nations is/are not members of the OECD?



(A) India (B) China

(C) Japan (D) Germany

Choose the answer from the following choices:

(1) A, B (2) B, C

(3) A (4) A, C

14. Which among the following cities was the venue for the fourth ministerial meet of the

WTO?

(1) Singapore (2) Seattle



(3) Doha (4) Mexico

15. Which among the following nations is the richest nation in the Arab world?

(1) United Arab Emirates (2) Saudi Arabia

(3) Qatar (4) Kuwait

16. Which among the following companies has recently launched the 'Victor', an

indigenously developed motorbike?

(1) Bajaj (2) Escorts (3) TVS (4) None of these

17. Which among the following bikes is not owned by TVS-Suzuki?

(1) Boxer (2) MAX R (3) Samurai (4) Fiero

18. Which among the following companies is the manufacturer of anti-impotency drug

Penegra?

(1) Zydus Cadila (2) Glaxo Smith Kline

(3) Cipla (4) None of these

19. Match the following. Column -I represents companies and Column-II hospitality groups

promoted by them.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Tata i. East India Hotel

(b) Oberoi ii. Taj group

(c) ITC iii. Welcome group

Choose the answer from the following choices:

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii (2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii

(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-I (4) none of these

20. Vijay TV is a popular Tamil entertainment satellite channel. It has been recently acquired

by the

(1) Sun TV (2) KTV



(3) Zee TV (4) none of these

21. Which among the following Indian Information Technology (IT) companies is not listed

in the stock exchange?

(1) Satyam (2) Tata Consultancy Service (TCS)

(3) Wipro (4) None of these

22. Hutchison is a cellular service provider and has a joint venture agreement with Essar.

The company is based in

(1) Seoi (2) Hong Kong

(3) Singapore (4) none of these

23. Australian media tycoon Kerry Packer is associated with

(1) NEC (2) News Corp

(3) Nine broadcasting (4) none of these

24. "Your Dreams, Our Commitment" is the punch line of

(1) Birla Sun Life (2) OM Kotak Mahindra

(3) Alliance Bajaj Insurance (4) none of these

25. "Technology to the max" is the punch line associated with which among the following car

brands?

(1) Ford Mondeo (2) Maruti Versa



(3) Fiat Palio (4) None of these

26. Which among the following statements is/are true vis-a-vis mark Tully?

(A) He is a Kolkata-born and former correspondent of BBC

(B) He has been conferred Knighthood, recently

(C) He is the new CEO of BBC

Choose the answer from the following choices:

(1) All of the above (2) Only A

(3) A and B (4) Only B

27. Venkatswamy commission is related to

(1) Tehelka episode (2) security scam

(3) constitutional reform (4) none of these

28. Statutory companies are those

(1) created through a special Act of the Parliament

(2) not governed by the Companies Act

(3) Governed by the Act which creates them

(4) all of these

29. A multinational company is a company having

(1) its registration in more- than one country

(2) its operation beyond the country of origin

(3) its operation through, more than five sea ports

(4) none of these

30. Market capitalisation of a company refers to

(1) face value of a share multiplied by the number of shares floated

(2) market value multiplied by the number of subscribed shares

(3) book value multiplied by the number of authorised shares

(4) none of these

31. Which among the following company/entity has a majority stake in the West Bangalbased

Haldia Petrochemicals Ltd (HPL)?

(1) Purnendu Chatterjee (2) Tata group

(3) West Bengal government (4) TOC

32. Match the following, Column-1 represents automobile companies and Column-II their

brands.


Column-I Column-II

(A) Hindustan Motors i. Alto

(B) Fiat ii. Contessa

(C) Maruti Udyog iii. Siana

(D) Honda iv. Accord

Choose the answer rom the following choices:

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iv. D-iii (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

33. 'Peso' is 'the currency of which among the following countries?

() Argentina (2) Peru

(3) Mexico (4) None of these

34. Which among the following persons has been named the 2001 FIFA 'World Player of The

Year"'

(1) Rivaldo (2) Zinedine Zidane



(3) Luis Figo (4) None of them

35. Hindustan Motors Ltd (HM) is India's oldest automobile company. The company

belongs to

(1) C K Birla group (2) A V Birla group

(3) K K Birla group (4) none of these

36. Mitsubishi, a Japanese company, has a tie up with which among the following Indian

automobile companies?

(1) Telco (2) Bajaj Auto

(3) Hindustan Motors (HM) (4) None of these

37. Which among the following companies is a world's largest maker of mobile phones?

(1) Nokia (2) Ericsson

(3) Vodafone (4) None of these

38. Cyber port, a high-technology industrial park, is being built up on model of Silicon

Valley in

(1) Bangalore (2) Hyderabad (3) Beijing (4) Hong Kong

39. Global depository receipts are a form of

(1) debenture (2) bonds

(3) equity shares (4) none of these

40. Buy back of shares is meant for

(1) public limited companies but not in India

(2) public limited companies in India

(3) only American companies

(4) none of these

41. Merger and acquisition is implemented by companies those target

(1) expansion and growth (2) name and fame

(3) labour intensive production (4) capital intensive production

42. Par value system of shares is

(1) no more applicable in India

(2) applicable in India

(3) applicable in India in selected cases

(4) none of these

43. Department stores are those

(1) attached to the government departments

(2) run by the various departments of the government

(3) large stores consisting of a number of departments under the same root

(4) none of these

44. US GAAP is associated with

(1) ranking of companies (2) accounting practices

(3) health services (4) none of these

45. At which among the following prices, Indian GDP is estimated by the Central Statistical

Organisation?

(A) Constant prices (B) Current prices

(C) Historical prices

Choose the answer from the following choices:

(1) A, B (2) A, B and C

(3) B,C (4) None of these

46. During which among the following plan period Indian GDP had registered the highest

growth?


(1) Sixth Plan (2) Seventh Plan

(3) Eighth Plan (4) Ninth Plan

47. Disinvestments refers to

(1) reimbursement of investment

(2) withdrawal of investment

(3) further investment

(4) none of these

48. CII is a

(1) public limited company (2) private limited company

(3) industrial apex body (4) none of these

49. The fiscal policy of India is formulated by the

(1) Planning Commission (2) ministry of finance

(3) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) (4) none of these

50. The monetary policy of India is formulated by the

(1) Reserve Bank of India (2) ministry of finance

(3) Planning Commission (4) none of these



SECTION 3

1. A spherical balloon is inflated and its radius is increasing at 4 cm/second. At what rate

would the volume be increasing when its radius is 14cm?

(1) (56)3 cm3/sec (2) 9856 cm3/sec

(3) 10,000cm3 /sec (4) None of these

2. When (629)24 is divided by 21, find the remainder.

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 11

3. If (a b)3

(a b)3

a b


a b





, what set(s) of a and b is/are correct?

A. S1 = {a= any real value, b=0}

B. S2 = {a= 0, b= any real value}

C. S3 = {a= 0, b =0}

(1) Only A (2) Only B

(3) Only A and B (4) All A, B and C

4. Which of the following is the lowest?

(1) 302 –122 – 32 (2) 352 –142 – 62

(3) 302 –102 - 53 (4) 332 –172 - 12

5. a, b and c are the sides of a triangle. Equations ax2 + bx + c = 0 and 3x2 + 4x + 5 = 0 have a

common root. Then angle C is equal to

(1) 600 (2) 900 (3) 1200 (4) None of these

6. Sum of all prime numbers less than 50 is

(1) more than 500 (2) less than 200

(3) a prime number (4) an even number

7. N = abc is a three-digit number, a, b and c being their respective digits. N is a perfect

square of an even number. To find N which of following informations is/are necessary/

sufficient?

A. a, b, c are three consecutive digits but not in order.

B. N is divisible by 18.

C. Units digit of N2 is c.

(1) Only A and B together are sufficient

(2) A and C together are sufficient

(3) Only B and C together are sufficient

(4) Either A and C together or B and C together are sufficient

8. Let x, y, z be three positive integers satisfying y = 3x, z = 4x, x + y + z = 3k, k is an integer.

Which of the following is the smallest value of k for which x, y, z are even number?

(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 16

9. N = aebfcg is a six- digit number where a, b, c, e, f, g are six digit;

If a = e, b = f and c = = g then which of the given informations is not correct?

(1) If g = 4 then N is divisible by 44.

(2) If a + b + c = 6 then N is divisible by 33.

(3) If g= 8, then for different values of a, b, c and e, N may be a perfect square

(4) If b = c = 0, then N is not a perfect square.

10. N = abcd is a four digit number and M= xyz is a three-digit number. NM is

(1) a five digit number when a = x= 1

(2) a six digit number when a = 3 and x = 3

(3) a seven digit number when a = 6 and x = 2

(4) an eight digit number when a = b = c = d = x = y = z = 9

11. N = (A7A)17 is a perfect square. Which of the following statement is FALSE?

(1) A is an even digit.

(2) A is divisible by 3

(3) When N is divided by 13 we get remainder 3.

(4) None of these



Directions Q. 12 - 13: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below.


The above diagram shows the liking of Tea and coffee(hot drink) and coke (cold drink) among

students in a particular class. This diagram is based on the survey conducted in the month of

February.

12. When another survey was conducted in June among the same students the result was

different. All of them liked Coke. 12 liked Tea, but no one liked Coffee. How many

students liked only Coke?

(1) 40 (2) 23 (3) 20 (4) 11

13. When another survey was conducted in December among the same students, the result

was again different. All of them liked at least one hot drink. 16 liked Coke. No one liked

all the three drinks. Which of the following conclusions is true?

(1) No one liked Coke and Coffee.

(2) Some liked Coke and Tea.

(3) Number of students who liked both Tea and Coffee is less than 20.

(4) Only 10 liked both Tea and Coffee.

2

3

5 4



6

4 11


Coffee = 14C oke = 14

14. A mother purchase three shirts of the same color but of different size for her three sons.

All the three shirts were kept in a box in a dark room. The three boys took one shirt each

at random from the box. What is the probability that none of the boys this own shirt?

(1) ½ (2) 1/3 (3) 2/3 (4) 1/4

15. Product of three consecutive numbers is 2730. What is the sum of three numbers?

(1) 39 (2) 42 (3) 45 (4) None of these

Directions Q. 16 – 18: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below.


The above figure shows the roadmap plan of 5 towns A, B, C, D and E. The computerised

car has the software of this roadmap plan in its computer. To follow the route the driver

has to feed instructions. Not necessarily all of the instructions at one time, into the

computer. One instruction can be used for more than one time in a single set of

instructions. The three types of instructions are as follows:

Instructions Type Explanations of instructions

GOTO (X, Y) The car is instructed to move from x to y through shortest route.

ROUTE (X, Y, Z) The car is instructed to move from X to Z via the town Y; Y is

situated on the shortest route from X to Z.

BACK (X, Y) The car is instructed to go from X to Y and back to X through

shortest route.

16. A person lives in town A. He has to reach E. He wants to visit all the other three towns.

What set of instructions should he feed into the computer so that he travels the minimum

distance?

(1) GOTO (A, D), GOTO (D, B), GOTO (B, A) ROUTE (A, C, E)

(2) BACK (A, C), ROUTE (A, D, B), GOTO (B, E)

(3) BACK (A, C), GOTO (A, D), GOTO (D, B) GOTO (B, E)

(4) None of these

17. Mr. Goswami lives in town B. He has to go to town C. he wants to visit all the other three

towns. He plans his routes such that he can travel for minimum distance. Find the

minimum of instructions to be fed into the computer.

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) None of these

A

C



B E

D

8



21

10

18 km



8

12

15 km



18. The direct road from A to D is destroyed to flood. A person wants to use the

computerised car to go from A to D. which of the three set of instructions can’t be used

by him?

(1) ROUTE (A, B, E) , GOTO( (E, D)



(2) GOTO (A, B), GOTO (B, D)

(3) ROUTE (A, C, E) , GOTO ( E, D)

(4) None of these

19. A circle is instructed in a regular octagon. The same circle circumscribes a regular

hexagon. Find the ratio of the areas of the circle, the hexagon and octagon.

(1) 2 : 33 : 16(2 –1) (2) : 33 : 4(2 –1)

(3) 2 /3 : 23 : 4(2 –1) (4) None these.

20. Find the remainder when N = 18211823 1827 is divisible by 12.

(1) 9 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 18

Directions: Q 21 - 25: are based on the following:

Sun Ltd. and Star Ltd. are two rivals always trying to outdo each other. The following table gives

the payoffs for Sun Ltd. for various strategies that they adopt and the corresponding strategies

adopted by Star Ltd. e.g. If Sun Ltd. adopts strategy B, and Star Ltd. adopts strategy A, then Sun

Ltd. gains 6000 while Star Ltd. loses 6000. In addition to this, for implementing any particular

strategy, both have to incur certain expenses, which are given in the table “Expenses”.

Payoffs for Sun Ltd.

Star Ltd.

Strategy A B C

A 8000 12000 8000

Sun Ltd. B 6000 - 2000 0

C 8000 16000 4000

Expenses

Strategy A B C

Star Ltd. 7000 8000 8000

Sun Ltd. 8000 2000 8000

21. If Star Ltd. adopts strategy A, which strategy should Sun Ltd. adopt for maximum gain?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) A or C

22. If Star Ltd. adopts strategy B, what is Sun Ltd.’s maximum possible gain?

(1) 10000 (2) 0 (3) 12000 (4) None of these

23. If Sun Ltd. adopts strategy B, what strategy should Star Ltd. adopt to minimise Sun’s

gain, regardless of what its own gain will be?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) A or C

24. Of the following, which would be the most intelligent move on the part of Star Ltd?

(1) If Sun Ltd. adopts strategy A, adopt strategy B.

(2) If Sun Ltd. adopts strategy B adopt strategy B.

(3) If Sun Ltd. adopts strategy C adopt strategy B.

(4) If Sun Ltd. adopts strategy C adopt strategy A.

25. If both the companies adopt strategy C, then which of the following is true?

I. Star Ltd.’s net loss is 12000.

II. Sun Ltd.’s gain is 4000.

III. Sun Ltd.’s loss is 4000

(1) I only (2) I & III (3) II only (4) III only

Directions Q. 26 - 30: Refer to the diagram given below:

MARKS OBTAINED BY TWO STUDENTS

26. Sohan’s average for the first six years was:

I. equal to that of the last six years.

II. equal to that of the middle six years.

III. 225


(1) III only (2) I & III (3) I, II & III (4) II & III

27. When was Mohan’s score exactly half of Sohan’s in the given nine years?

(1) 1984 (2) 1985 (3) 1986 (4) never

28. How can Mohan’s scoring pattern be best described?

(1) It increases by 50% every year.

(2) It increases by 25% every year.

(3) It increases by 50 every year.

(4) It increases by 25 every year.

29. What is the difference between the total scores of Mohan and Sohan?

(1) 700 (2) 825 (3) 900 (4) 225

30. In how many of the given years was Sohan’s score exactly thrice that of Mohan’s score?

(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four



Directions Q. 31 - 35: The table shows the raw material requirements for a crank-shaft machining

line of a major automobile manufacturer located in western India:

RAW MATERIAL REQUIREMENT (Units)

Day 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Units 50 25 30 20 5 6 2 10 15 20 25 10 5 20 10

0

50



100

150


200

250


1981

1982


1983

1984


1986 1985

1987


1988

1989


Sohan

Mohan


The Company policy requires that adequate raw material has to be maintained at least a day in

advance.


31. If the raw material inventory on Day 0 was 165 units, the manager requires to place on

order latest by which day?

(1) 8th (2) 9th (3) 10th (4) 11th

32. If the raw material inventory on Day 0 was 73 units and the manager orders for 17, 53

and 86 units on the first, second and fourth day respectively, when does he need to order

next?


(1) 10th day (2) 11th day (3) 13th day (4) 14th day

33. If the raw material supplier starts acting fishy and delays his supplies by 48 hrs, then

which day’s production will be hit if the starting inventory on day 0 is 163 units and an

order is placed on the morning of day 7?

(1) None (2) Day 8 (3) Day 9 (4) Day 10

34. If the cost of placing on order is Rs. 650/per order, determine the minimum cost incurred

in Q.32 if we consider the whole cycle of 15 days.

(1) Rs. 1,950 (2) Rs. 650 (3) Rs. 2,600 (4) Rs. 3,250

35. If the daily pilferage is 5 units, find the minimum number of units to be ordered through

the whole cycle if we start with an inventory on Day 0 of 100 units? (assume that we end

with zero inventory)

(1) 296 (2) 153 (3) 75 (4) 228



Directions Q. 36 - 40: The following pie - chart shows the percentage of students passed in an

examination from different parts of the country in 1999.

The following graph shows the percentage of students who passed their graduation (freshers) in

1999.


Others

25%


WB

10%


Orissa

11%


UP

16%


Bihar

38%


36. If in 1999 the total passed candidates from different parts of the country was 650, then

how many non fresher candidates from Bihar passed the examination in 1999?

(1) 200 (2) 195 (3) 198 (4) 204

37. If in 1999 the total number of freshers from WB was 160, then how many non - fresher

candidates passed the exam from others?

(1) 1398 (2) 1588 (3) 1608 (4) 1408

38. If total passed candidates from UP in 1999 was 112, what is the ratio between the number

of freshers from Bihar and that of non - freshers from Orissa?

(1) 760 : 187 (2) 187 : 760 (3) 40 : 11 (4) None of these

39. If there is an increase of 10% and 20% candidates from Bihar and Others in the year 2000

respectively, and the number of total passed candidates from Orissa in 1999 was 77, what

would be the approximate total passed candidates from Bihar and Others in 2000?

(1) 210 (2) 480 (3) 450 (4) 500

40. If the non-fresher candidates from UP in 1999 was 60, how many candidates passed the

exam from all parts of the country?

(1) 500 (2) 300 (3) 350 (4) 450



Directions Q. 41 to 44: are based on the following information:

- Ghosh Babu’s new interest is psychology. He has identified various personality

patterns and given them names. These personality patterns are inter-related as

follows:


- All Alessandras, Belissimas, Cassandras, Desdemonas, Elissimas and Firdauses

are Queens.

- All Alessandras are Belissimas.

- No Belissima that is not an Alessandra is a Firdaus.

- Some Cassandras are Alessandras.

- All Desdemonas are Cassandras.

- Some Cassandras are not Belissimas.

- No Desdemona is an Alessandra.

- All Queens and only Queens that are neither Belissimas nor Cassandras are

Elissimas.

41. Which of the following is true?

(1) All Firdauses are Alessandras.

(2) Some Firdauses are Alessandras.

20

25



15

25

12



0

5

10



15

20

25



30

Bihar UP Orissa WB Others

(3) All Firdauses are either Alessandras, Cassandras or Elissimas.

(4) Some Firdauses are Cassandras.

42. Which of the following is not true?

(1) No Desdemonas are Belissimas.

(2) Some Belissimas are Desdemonas.

(3) Some Firdauses are both Belissimas and Cassandras.

(4) Some Queens are neither Belissimas nor Elissimas.

43. Which of the following cannot be said to be true or false?

I. No Belissima or Cassandra is an Elissima.

II. Some Cassandras are Belissimas but not Alessandras.

III. No Belissima is both an Alessandra and a Desdemona.

(1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) I & II

44. Peter is not a Belissima, therefore,

(1) Peter is an Elissima

(2) If Peter is a Queen, he is an Elissima or Cassandra.

(3) If Peter is not an Elissima, he is a Cassandra.

(4) None of the above

Directions: Each of the questions 45- 52 is followed by two statements. As the answer,

Mark 1, if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone,

Mark 2, if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone,

Mark 3, if both statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question, and

Mark 4, if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.

45. Is line MN perpendicular to the X-axis?

I. M = (5, 12) II. N lies on the X -axis at a distance of 5 units from the origin.

46. What is the value of x?

I. log2 2x = x II. log3 x = 0

47. How much tax did Mrs. X pay?

I. Gauri paid twice the amount that Rajat did last year.

II. Rajat paid Rs. 9800 as tax this year.

48. A, B, C and D are points on a straight line. Is AB = BC = CD?

I. AC = 2 CD II. AB = BC

49. What is the area of the isosceles trapezium?

I. Of the two parallel sides, one is 6 cm. smaller than the other.

II. The line joining the midpoints of the non-parallel sides is 13 cm. in length and is

at a distance of 2 cm. from the base.

50. If a and b are integers, is (a/4 + b/5) an integer?

I. The cube root of a is an even number which is 1/10th the value of b.

II. a is divisible by 5 and b is divisible by 4.

51. A cube is painted on all sides and is cut into smaller cubes, all of the same size. How

many of the smaller cubes do not have any side painted?

I. 8 of the smaller cubes are painted on the three sides.

II. The number of smaller cubes is 64.

52. Is x/y prime?

I. x is divisible by 3 but not by 9

II. y is a multiple of 6

53. On 1st January 1969, a person purchases Rs. 10,000, 4% debentures. On 1st Jan. 1970, he

sells ¾ of it at a discount of 6% and invests the proceeds in steel shares at Rs. 470 per

share. He sells the remaining debentures at Rs. 105 and purchases bonds at a price of Rs.

75 per bond. Each bond pays Rs. 5. Each share pays Rs. 16. Find the alternation in his

annual income in 1970?

(1) Rs. 15 decrease (2) Rs. 25 increase

(3) Rs. 15 increase (4) None

54. Which of the following is NOT true?

(1) |a + b| = | b + a|

(2) |a - b| = |b - a|

(3) |a + b | < |a| +|b|

(4) | a - b | > |a| - |b|

55. Find the least number which when divided by 35, 45, and 55 leaves the remainder 18, 28,

and 38 respectively.

(1) 3465 (2) 17 (3) 3449 (4) 3448

56. Between two numbers whose sum is 6 ½ an even number of arithmetic means is inserted;

the sum of these means exceeds their number by unity. How many means are there?

(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 24 (4) None

57. A trader buys goods from Delhi to sell in Bombay where he gets 20% higher price

realisation. Per journey, he spends Rs. 2000 on travelling, Rs. 2500 as bribe to the parcel

authority and makes a net profit of Rs. 20,000. Find the total value of goods purchased by

the dealer in 7 journeys to Delhi.

(1) Rs. 1,22,500 (2) Rs. 2,45,000 (3) Rs. 8,57,500 (4) None

58. A family consists of the father, mother, two sons and the youngest daughter. The age of

father is four times the age of the second son. The age of the first son is in the ratio of 3 : 1

with that of his sister. The mother is 3.5 times older than the second son. The age of the

second son is 2/3 times of the first son. The age of the youngest daughter is 5 years. Find

the sum of all the ages.

(1) 115 yrs (2) 105 yrs (3) 205 yrs (4) 210 yrs

59. A can do a piece of work in 36 days, B in 54 days and C in 72 days. All of them began

together but A left 8 days and B left 12 days before the completion of the work. How

many days in all did C put in till the entire work was finished?

(1) 48 days (2) 24 days (3) 12 days (4) None

60. A person travels through 5 cities - A, B, C, D, E. Cities E is 2 km west of D. D is 3 km

north-east of A. C is 5 km north of B and 4 km west of A. If this person visits these cities

in the sequence B - C - A - E - D, what is the effective distance between cities B and D?

(1) 13 km (2) 9 km (3) 10 km (4) 11 km

ESSAY TOPIC:

Discuss the following statement in the space provided (1 page was given separately to give the

response)

Asked at the age of 83, as to which of his project would he choose as his master- piece, Frank

Lloyd Wright the architect answered “The next one”

SOLUTION

SECTION 1

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (3)

11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (1)

21. (4) 22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (4) 30. (1)

31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (1)

41.( 3) 42. (1) 43. (4) 44. (4) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (3) 50. (2)

51. (2) 52. (3) 53. (3) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (4) 57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (2)

SECTION 2

l. (2) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (1)

11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (4)

21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (l) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (l) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (2)

3.l. (l) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (3) 35. (l) 36. (3) 37. (l) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (4)

41. (1) 42. (l) 43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (2) 50. (1)



SECTION 3

1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (3)

11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1)

21. (2) 22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (4) 29. (3) 30. (1)

31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (4) 36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (4) 39. (4) 40. (1)

41. (3) 42. (1) 43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (2) 50. (1)



51. (2) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (1) 57. (3) 58. (2) 59. (2) 60. (1)
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