Chapter 2 — Biological Foundations: Heredity, Prenatal Development, and Birth multiple choice



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Chapter 2 — Biological Foundations: Heredity, Prenatal Development, and Birth
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. How many chromosomes are found in the organism that results from the union of a sperm cell and an egg cell?

a.

22

c.

44

b.

23

d.

46

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Factual
2. Kathleen and Alphonse are expecting their first child, and are having a pleasant conversation about the sex of the baby. Kathleen says, “Well, as long as all of the chromosomes are X, we’ll be having a girl!” Which of the following would be the best answer for Alphonse to give?

a.

“That isn’t exactly right, since it is an XY chromosomal pattern that produces a female baby.”

b.

“Actually, it is only one pair of chromosomes that determines the sex of the baby.”

c.

“It is not the chromosomes, but the genes that make up the chromosomes that determine whether we’ll have a son or a daughter.”

d.

“Since we are only in the second month of the pregnancy, we still have six months to go before the sex of the baby will be determined by the 15th and 16th pairs of chromosomes.”

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Application
3. When looking through a microscope at an entire set of human male chromosomes, how would you be able to differentiate an autosome pair from a sex chromosome pair?

a.

The sex chromosome pair would be about 10 times larger than the autosome pair.

b.

The circular-shaped cells would be the autosomes and the square shapes would be the sex chromosomes.

c.

There would be three cells in the autosome “pair” and two cells in the sex chromosome “pair.”

d.

The shape of the sex chromosomes would differ, whereas each autosome pair would look identical.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Conceptual
4. How many of the pairs of chromosomes in normal human cells are considered autosomes?

a.

1

c.

22

b.

12

d.

46

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Factual

5. Which of the following is NOT one of the chemical compounds that makes up a strand of DNA?



a.

depranine

c.

thymine

b.

adenine

d.

cytocine

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Factual
6. How is it that DNA “knows” which specific amino acids, proteins, or enzymes to create?

a.

The number of chromosomes that makes up the DNA strand determines this outcome.

b.

The length of the DNA strand, determined by the number of genes on the strand, produces the specific outcome.

c.

The combination of XX and XY chromosomes in the DNA strand determines this outcome.

d.

The order in which the four nucleotide bases occur in the DNA strand results in the specific production outcomes.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Conceptual
7. Kimberley is having a discussion with her friend Aasta about the genetic determinants of development. They cannot come to an agreement on what the functional units of heredity are. If they asked you to help them figure this out, what would you say?

a.

The most functional units of heredity are chromosomes.

b.

The most functional units of heredity are genes.

c.

The most functional units of heredity are ribosomes.

d.

The most functional units of heredity are nucleotides.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Application
8. When Chester is conceived by his parents, he has the genetic instructions to grow up to be 6’1’’ tall. During his childhood, however, he develops a digestive illness that significantly limits the amount of food he can eat, and he regularly fails to get enough vitamins in his diet. As a result, he grows up to be 5’11’’ tall. In this example, a height of 6’1’’ is Chester’s ________ and a height of 5’11’’ is Chester’s ________.

a.

phenotype; genotype

c.

nucleotype; chromotype

b.

chromotype; nucleotype

d.

genotype; phenotype

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Application
9. Genotype is to phenotype as

a.

homozygous is to heterozygous.

b.

nurture is to nature.

c.

DNA is to RNA.

d.

genetic pattern is to physical, behavioral, and psychological features.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Conceptual

10. Kendrie suffers from sickle cell anemia. She is not just a carrier of the illness, but she actually has the disease itself. Which of the following best describes Kendrie’s red blood cell alleles?



a.

heterozygous

c.

homozygous

b.

genotypical

d.

phenotypical

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Application
11. When you learned to speak English, you may have learned the following saying: “When two vowels go walking, the first does the talking.” If we were to apply this rule to heterozygous genes, we would be most accurate if we said, “When two genes go walking, the ________ one does the talking.”

a.

masked

c.

dominant

b.

recessive

d.

typical

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Application
12. Which type of allele is ignored when found in a heterozygous gene pair?

a.

masked

c.

typical

b.

dominant

d.

recessive

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Factual
13. Maricella was born several days ago, and her pediatrician has observed that she has almond-shaped eyes and a fold over her eyelids. In addition, her head, neck, and nose are smaller than other babies of her birth weight. With which of the following conditions would Maricella most likely be diagnosed?

a.

Down syndrome

c.

Kleinfelter’s syndrome

b.

Turner’s syndrome

d.

Phenylketonuria

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Application
14. Maricella was born several days ago, and her pediatrician has observed that she has almond-shaped eyes and a fold over her eyelids. In addition, her head, neck, and nose are smaller than other babies of her birth weight. It is most likely that Maricella has an extra of the _____ pair of chromosomes.

a.

4th

c.

17th

b.

9th

d.

21st

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Application

15. Which maternal characteristic is most strongly associated with giving birth to a baby with Down syndrome?



a.

low levels of intelligence in the mother

b.

consumption of alcohol during pregnancy

c.

higher maternal age

d.

exposure to lead or mercury by the baby immediately after birth

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Factual
16. Which of the following statements supports the proposition that the presence of an X chromosome appears to be necessary for life?

a.

X-chromosomal genotypes are expressed as consistent phenotypes at a rate of around 85%, while Y-chromosomal genotypes are expressed as consistent phenotypes at a rate of only about 15%.

b.

The X chromosomes are expressed far earlier in the prenatal period than the Y chromosomes.

c.

There are no chromosomal disorders wherein a person has only Y chromosomes.

d.

Most of the lethal chromosomal disorders, including Tay-Sachs disease and cystic fibrosis, are located on the Y chromosome.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Mechanisms of heredity MSC: Conceptual
17. Traits that are “either/or” phenotypes (e.g., being color blind or not being color blind, having a blood clotting disorder or not having a blood clotting disorder) are usually controlled by ________ genes.

a.

polymorphic

c.

multiple

b.

mutated

d.

single

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Factual
18. If a physician informed you that your speech disorder was the result of problems on chromosomes 4, 7, and 15, you would rightly conclude that the disorder is always classifiable as

a.

recessive.

c.

dominant.

b.

polygenic.

d.

sex-linked.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Application

19. When many genes work together to determine a characteristic, there may be a large range of phenotypes that are expressed. Why is this?



a.

Because each allele of the genes may be differently structured, leaving a large variety of outcomes.

b.

Because there are many combinations of dominant and recessive genes that can lead to various levels of the characteristic being expressed.

c.

Because each gene is contributed to by a different chromosome, bringing more phenotypical variety into the characteristic.

d.

Because the genes all work to “cancel” each other out, leaving only one “odd” gene to express the phenotype.

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Conceptual
20. David and Katie have always been close. In fact, they are so close that they shared the womb when their mother was pregnant with them. Given the information that you have already been given in this question, which of the following can you state conclusively?

a.

David and Katie are monozygotic twins.

b.

David and Katie are conjoined twins.

c.

David and Katie are dizygotic twins.

d.

David and Katie share 25% of their genotype.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Application
21. Monozygotic is to ________ as dizygotic is to ________.

a.

heterozygous; homozygous

c.

homozygous; heterozygous

b.

identical; fraternal

d.

fraternal; identical

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Conceptual
22. Which of the following circumstances would indicate the greatest level of heritability of a trait?

a.

Francois performs as well in school as the siblings with whom he was raised, even though he was adopted and is not genetically related to them.

b.

D’artagnan prefers to watch movies on television, while his parents prefer to watch movies at a movie theater.

c.

Luigi and his siblings are all about the same height.

d.

Mario’s results on a personality test are far more similar to his biological parents than they are to his adopted parents.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Application

23. Which of the following properties is widely accepted with regard to the relationship between genes and behaviors?



a.

Genes actually change and break down as we age, which is why our actions change so dramatically as we get older.

b.

Environmental influences typically make children within the family very similar to each other.

c.

Genes cannot influence the kind of environment to which a person is exposed.

d.

Heredity and environment interact dynamically throughout development.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Factual
24. The concept that genotypes are not the only things that control traits involves the fact that

a.

dizygotic twins are virtually genetically identical while fraternal twins are not.

b.

each genotype can produce a variety of phenotypes, depending on the environment in which a person lives.

c.

recessive genes are more commonly expressed than dominant genes, especially in cases of polygenic inheritance.

d.

the environment has little impact on behavior, as has been demonstrated in the results of the nature-nurture question.

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Conceptual
25. The fact that a person with phenylketonuria can essentially mute the effects of their disease by controlling their dietary intake of a specific amino acid is an example of which of the following principles?

a.

Heredity and the environment interact dynamically throughout development.

b.

Genes can influence the environment to which a person is exposed.

c.

Development is multidirectional in its nature.

d.

Environmental influences typically make children within a family different.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Conceptual
26. Marvin has an exceptional amount of skill in athletics. Specifically, he is an extraordinary hockey player. Throughout his life he has chosen circumstances where he would be exposed to peers who also enjoyed hockey, and this has helped him develop opportunities to develop his talent. Marvin has been engaging in

a.

genotyping.

c.

niche-picking.

b.

phenotyping.

d.

heritizing.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Application
27. ________ refers to the process of deliberately seeking environments that fit one’s heredity.

a.

Niche-picking

c.

Base-rating

b.

Context-selection

d.

Polygenic inheritance

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Factual

28. Jack and Jill are twins. Because he is a boy, Jack’s parents encourage him to run. However, they discourage Jill from engaging in athletic activity. As a result, Jack is much faster at running up a hill than Jill. The difference in Jack and Jill’s behavior is best explained by



a.

nonshared environmental influences.

c.

polygenetic effects.

b.

active gene-environment relations.

d.

niche-picking.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Application
29. Although identical twins share 100% of their genetic code and are often similar, they are never truly “identical.” Which of the following explains these differences?

a.

heterozygous chromosomal deviations

c.

post-natal genetic mutations

b.

active gene-environment relationships

d.

nonshared environmental influences

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Conceptual
30. Larry and Ira are brothers who are two years apart in age. Larry went to one public school for his grade school years, but before Ira could go to that school the district underwent a rezoning. Ira, therefore, ended up going to a different school with less-qualified teachers and fewer resources. As a result, Larry tended to perform much better in school than Ira did. This example demonstrates the influence of

a.

active gene-environment relationships

c.

nonshared environmental influences

b.

niche-picking

d.

asynchronous environmental genotypes

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: In the Beginning: 23 Pairs of Chromosomes

OBJ: Heredity, environment, and development MSC: Application
31. The time between conception and birth is called the ________ period.

a.

prenatal

c.

postnatal

b.

neonatal

d.

teratogenic

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the zygote MSC: Factual
32. Which of the following is the correct order of the stages of pregnancy?

a.

period of the embryo, period of the fetus, period of the zygote

b.

period of the zygote, period of the embryo, period of the fetus

c.

period of the fetus, period of the zygote, period of the embryo

d.

period of the embryo, period of the zygote, period of the fetus

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the zygote MSC: Factual
33. Out of the 200–500 million sperm cells that are released during an ejaculation, only ________ complete the short journey up the Fallopian tubes to where an egg is waiting to be fertilized.

a.

half

c.

a few hundred

b.

one

d.

a few thousand

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the zygote MSC: Factual

34. Jeanette and her husband Eric have recently engaged in sexual intercourse. After this activity was completed, an egg in Jeanette’s Fallopian tube was fertilized by a sperm cell that was released by Eric. The result is a(n) ________, which marks the beginning of pregnancy.



a.

zygote

c.

fetus

b.

embryo

d.

blastocyst

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the zygote MSC: Application
35. Despite the fact that a human female has a normal pregnancy duration (or gestational period) of 38 weeks, people often refer to pregnancy as a 40-week event. Why is this?

a.

Because the heightened influence of teratogens in the world today has actually extended the duration of pregnancy from conception to delivery.

b.

Because pregnancy usually begins two weeks after a woman’s menstrual period, and that is the time from which the beginning of pregnancy is measured.

c.

Because the duration of pregnancy actually gets longer as a woman ages, and it ranges from 38 to 42 weeks. 40 weeks is the average, so that is what people say.

d.

Because physicians want to allow for a two-week “window” at the end of the pregnancy so that women do not become concerned if they have not delivered by the end of the 38th week.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the zygote MSC: Conceptual
36. Which of the following structures eventually develops into a baby?

a.

the amniotic sac

c.

the trophoblast

b.

the germ disc

d.

the blastocyst

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the zygote MSC: Factual
37. Pregnant Patty’s body is currently experiencing the event that triggers hormonal changes that will prevent further menstruation. This event is called

a.

implantation.

c.

dilation.

b.

conception.

d.

effacement.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the zygote MSC: Application

38. Lucy is currently expecting her first child, and she is talking to her friend Dale, who does not have any children of his own. Dale knows very little about human development, and asks Lucy how the food she eats gets to the developing child. Lucy smiles and shakes her head, before saying,



a.

The uterus is responsible for doing all of that. Why do you think that is where the baby grows?

b.

The germ disc separates me from the child, but has a small hole in it that allows vitamins and nutrients to get to the child.

c.

The umbilicus is responsible for taking food out of my system and delivering it directly into the baby’s stomach.

d.

There is a structure called the placenta that helps my body exchange nutrients and waste with the baby.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the zygote MSC: Application
39. Once a zygote implants itself in the uterine lining, it officially becomes a(n) ________.

a.

embryo

c.

fetus

b.

baby

d.

germ disc

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the embryo MSC: Factual
40. Brad and Angelina take their daughter Anniston to the zoo, and are looking at a bunch of different animals. Anniston, who has recently been learning about human development, sees a ________ and says, “Mommy, Daddy! That looks just like a human embryo in its third week of development!”

a.

spider

c.

aardvark

b.

salamander

d.

prairie dog

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the embryo MSC: Application
41. According to the weatherman on the local news, the outside temperature today will reach 102 degrees, with a possible heat index of 110 degrees. Thankfully for Quanetta, who is pregnant with her second child, the ________ will maintain a constant temperature for her unborn baby.

a.

uterus

c.

umbilical cord

b.

amniotic fluid

d.

placenta

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the embryo MSC: Application
42. The ________ is a structure that contains veins and arteries and connects a developing child to the placenta.

a.

umbilical cord

c.

germ disc

b.

amnion

d.

blastocyst

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the embryo MSC: Factual
43. Of the three prenatal stages of development which is by far the longest?

a.

the period of the zygote

c.

the period of the fetus

b.

the period of the embryo

d.

the period of the neonate

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the fetus MSC: Factual
44. Mel is at the obstetrician’s office with his girlfriend Denise, who is pregnant with their child. They have just started the ninth week of the pregnancy, and the doctor explains to them that the unborn child’s brain has developed distinct structures and is already beginning to regulate certain body functions. Based on what you know about prenatal development, you know that the period of the ________ has just begun.

a.

zygote

c.

umbilicus

b.

embryo

d.

fetus

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the fetus MSC: Application
45. Marsha’s doctor informs her that her child is just entering the longest period of prenatal development. About how long has Marsha been carrying her unborn child?

a.

1 day

c.

9 weeks

b.

3 weeks

d.

28 weeks

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the fetus MSC: Application
46. Why is it that 22 weeks is considered the earliest “age of viability” for an unborn child?

a.

Because this is the age by which the child’s systems are functioning well enough to potentially sustain life outside of the mother’s body.

b.

Because it is not until this age that the unborn child’s brain begins developing.

c.

Because this is the age when the child’s sex is determined, and when appropriate genitals begin to form.

d.

Because this is the age after which teratogens can no longer impact the baby.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the fetus MSC: Conceptual
47. The age of ________ is defined as the age at which a fetus can survive if it must be born because most of its bodily systems function adequately. It typically occurs 22 to 28 weeks into the pregnancy.

a.

zygotic intent

c.

plasticity

b.

viability

d.

continuity

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the fetus MSC: Factual
48. Which of the following types of sensory input are most salient to a fetus?

a.

visual input

c.

olfactory input

b.

tactile input

d.

auditory input

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: From Conception to Birth

OBJ: Period of the fetus MSC: Factual

49. Which of the following is NOT one of the general risk factors identified by your textbook for pregnant women and their babies?



a.

nutrition

c.

drugs

b.

the mother’s age

d.

stress

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: General risk factors MSC: Factual
50. Charlotte has just found out that she is pregnant, and she is thrilled about the news. She is concerned, however, because although she knows that her weight and body will change over the next several months, she wants those changes to be healthy. Which of the following advice should you give?

a.

Your child will need more and more as she develops, so there is no amount of weight gain that is unhealthy during pregnancy.

b.

You should increase your food intake by 10% to 20% to meet the needs of the baby.

c.

You are truly eating for two now, so you should be eating twice as much as normal.

d.

As long as you take prenatal vitamins every day, there is no real need for you to eat more than usual.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: General risk factors MSC: Factual
51. A pregnant woman not getting enough healthy food, vitamins, and nutrients may put her baby at risk for all but which of the following?

a.

premature birth

b.

effects to the child’s nervous system

c.

increased risk of later life eating disorders

d.

vulnerability to illness

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: General risk factors MSC: Factual
52. Maternal stress is most likely to negatively impact a developing embryo/fetus when that stress is

a.

intermittent and extreme.

c.

prolonged and extreme.

b.

intermittent and moderate.

d.

prolonged and moderate.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: General risk factors MSC: Conceptual

53. Which of the following describes one of the reasons why stress hormones that are elevated in women who are highly anxious during pregnancy can negatively impact the baby?



a.

stress-related hormones can block the flow of oxygen to the baby

b.

stress-related hormones absorb essential vitamins and nutrients that are essential for healthy development

c.

stress-related hormones increase the chances of the baby developing a stress-related mental illness later in life

d.

stress-related hormones delay the onset of uterine contractions, which can lead to babies being born well after their due date

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: General risk factors MSC: Conceptual
54. Your authors point out that teenage women have a greater chance of having problems during their pregnancy, labor, and delivery than pregnant women in their 20s. They suggest that this is mainly because

a.

pregnant teenagers are more likely to be economically disadvantaged and lack good prenatal care.

b.

pregnant teenagers are more likely to smoke cigarettes during pregnancy.

c.

pregnant teenagers are more likely to drink alcohol during pregnancy.

d.

pregnant teenagers are less likely to get adequate sleep and rest during pregnancy.

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: General risk factors MSC: Conceptual
55. In general, pregnancies are most likely to proceed normally when the mother is between the ages of ________ years.

a.

18 and 25

c.

21 and 30

b.

21 and 25

d.

20 and 35

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: General risk factors MSC: Factual
56. Alissa is a 41-year-old, married, professional woman who has just found out that she is pregnant with her third child. According to your textbook, which of the following conditions is her baby at higher risk of due to Alissa’s age?

a.

Down syndrome

b.

Phenylketonuria

c.

ADHD

d.

Von Recklinghausen disease (neurofibromatosis)

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: General risk factors MSC: Application
57. Any agent that interferes with normal prenatal development is a(n) ________.

a.

fetalytic

c.

ototoxin

b.

teratogen

d.

carcinogen

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Teratogens: Drugs, diseases and environmental hazards MSC: Factual
58. In Germany in the 1950s, the effects of teratogens gained widespread attention when pregnant women who took ________ to help them sleep gave birth to babies with deformations of their heads, legs, hands, and/or fingers. Over 7,000 babies were harmed by this drug before it was removed from the market.

a.

phenteramine

c.

thalidomide

b.

aspasneet

d.

paregoric

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Teratogens: Drugs, diseases and environmental hazards MSC: Factual
59. Whose mother most likely took thalidomide while pregnant because she was unaware its potential to harm her baby?

a.

Dean, who has a heart defect

c.

Jerry, who is deaf

b.

Martin, who has deformed arms and legs

d.

Lewis, who is severely mentally retarded

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Teratogens: Drugs, diseases and environmental hazards MSC: Application
60. Young Marvin, just a few months of age, is growing at a slower rate than would be expected for his age. He has heart problems and a slightly misshapen face, and is often very fussy and difficult to soothe. Which of the following substances did his mother likely ingest on a regular basis during her pregnancy?

a.

nicotine

c.

alcohol

b.

aspirin

d.

cocaine

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Teratogens: Drugs, diseases and environmental hazards MSC: Application
61. Why is there no conclusive evidence that there is a specific amount of alcohol a pregnant woman can drink without causing harmful effects to her child?

a.

Because there is no way to know exactly how much alcohol is in any given drink, and thus it is impossible to accurately gauge the amount of alcohol being consumed.

b.

Because the research has concluded that even very small amounts of alcohol are certainly damaging to an unborn child.

c.

Because any safe level of consumption is probably not the same for all women, as a result of heredity and health factors.

d.

Because alcohol is so often taken with other drugs that it is impossible to determine how much of it would be safe to consume.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Teratogens: Drugs, diseases and environmental hazards MSC: Conceptual

62. If a woman smokes cigarettes or other forms of tobacco during pregnancy, which of the following effects is MOST likely to occur?



a.

They are more likely to give birth to a child with cystic fibrosis or sickle cell anemia.

b.

They are more likely to have a child who is born in the “breech” position, thus complicating their delivery and increasing the odds of requiring a Caesarian section procedure.

c.

They are more likely to have a child born suffering from spina bifida

d.

They are more likely to suffer a miscarriage or to have a child born with a lower birth weight

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Teratogens: Drugs, diseases and environmental hazards MSC: Factual
63. Although an unborn child may be protected from many different maternal illnesses, such as colds and some strains of the flu, other illnesses can be extremely harmful to the baby. Which of the following is NOT listed as one of those illnesses?

a.

toxoplasmosis

c.

shingles

b.

cytomegalovirus

d.

chlamydia

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Teratogens: Drugs, diseases and environmental hazards MSC: Factual
64. Wendy is pregnant with her son, who will be named William. Wendy has been diagnosed with a specific illness, and she knew about this prior to getting pregnant. Although there is no way to know for sure if the illness will harm William during his development, the most likely symptoms of any such harm would include damage to his central nervous system, his teeth, and his bones. From which of the following illnesses does Wendy suffer?

a.

AIDS

c.

syphilis

b.

rubella

d.

genital herpes

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Teratogens: Drugs, diseases and environmental hazards MSC: Application
65. Although the risk of using a cellular telephone during pregnancy is, as of yet, unclear, your authors do note that there is one way in which using cell phones represents an enormous risk for both pregnant women and their unborn children. That is:

a.

using cell phones while exercising.

c.

using cell phones while cooking.

b.

using cell phones while driving.

d.

sleeping next to a charging cell phone.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Teratogens: Drugs, diseases and environmental hazards MSC: Factual

66. Why is it that environmental teratogens may be even more treacherous to deal with than, say, maternal illnesses or the use of drugs during pregnancy?



a.

Because environmental teratogens are widely understood to be the most serious in their potential to damage unborn children.

b.

Because environmental teratogens are, in fact, unavoidable.

c.

Because people have given up trying to “live clean” and avoid exposure to environmental teratogens.

d.

Because people are so often unaware of environmental teratogens in their surroundings.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Teratogens: Drugs, diseases and environmental hazards MSC: Conceptual
67. The key lesson learned by the fact that thalidomide showed no impact when tested on pregnant rats but led to birth defects in humans is that

a.

teratogens impact different genotypes differently.

b.

teratogens impact specific aspects of development.

c.

teratogen effects may not emerge until later in life.

d.

teratogen effects are the same regardless of the time when the individual is exposed.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: How teratogens influence prenatal development MSC: Conceptual
68. The fact that exposure to a teratogen during the period of the zygote often leads to a spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) while the same exposure during the period of the fetus can lead to minor defects of bodily structures or systems demonstrates that

a.

the impact of teratogens depends on the genotype of the organism

b.

the impact of teratogens changes the course of prenatal development

c.

different teratogens affect different aspects of prenatal development

d.

the impact of a teratogen depends on the amount, or dose, of the teratogen

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: How teratogens influence prenatal development MSC: Conceptual
69. The fact that ingestion of nicotine can lead to an increased risk of miscarriage or low birth weight while contracting rubella can cause aberrant development of the eyes, ears, and heart demonstrates that

a.

the impact of teratogens depends on the genotype of the organism.

b.

the impact of teratogens changes of the course of prenatal development.

c.

each teratogen affects a specific aspect (or aspects) of prenatal development.

d.

the impact of a teratogen depends on the amount, or dose, of the teratogen.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: How teratogens influence prenatal development MSC: Conceptual
70. What was the most critical lesson about teratogens learned from studies on the use of the drug DES by pregnant women?

a.

Sometimes what appear to be teratogens actually are harmless drugs.

b.

Infants in the late fetal period appear to be the most at risk for impact from drug-related teratogens.

c.

Sometimes the effects of teratogens are not apparent until long after exposure.

d.

Females appear to be at much greater risk from teratogens.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: How teratogens influence prenatal development MSC: Conceptual
71. In which type of prenatal testing is a grainy picture of the fetus generated that allows for identification of the child’s position and, at a certain point, its sex?

a.

amniocentesis

c.

ultrasound

b.

chorionic villus sampling

d.

transvaginal magnetic resonance imaging

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Prenatal diagnosis and treatment MSC: Factual
72. Which of the following is a relative limitation of the use of an ultrasound?

a.

It requires an instrument so large that is impractical to have in most physicians’ offices.

b.

It is notoriously unreliable at accurately identifying the sex of the child prior to birth.

c.

It carries a 1% chance of inducing a miscarriage.

d.

It gives a very grainy picture that takes an expert’s eyes to interpret.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Prenatal diagnosis and treatment MSC: Factual
73. Randi is pregnant for the first time. Given the frequency with which twins and triplets have occurred in her family, she is understandably concerned that she will have a multiple-birth pregnancy. If you were her gynecologist, which of the following prenatal tests would you recommend to either confirm or rule out the number of babies she is carrying?

a.

quadruple maternal blood test

c.

chorionic villus sampling

b.

amniocentesis

d.

ultrasound

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Prenatal diagnosis and treatment MSC: Application
74. If you were most interested in knowing the genotype of your unborn baby, perhaps to find out if there were specific genetic or chromosomal problems, which prenatal test would be most appropriate?

a.

ultrasound

c.

amniocentesis

b.

maternal glucose test

d.

chorionic villus sampling

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Prenatal diagnosis and treatment MSC: Factual
75. If you are pregnant and want to get a prenatal test to assess various aspects of your unborn child’s well-being, which of the following should you avoid if you suffer from trypanophobia (or the fear of needles)?

a.

amniocentesis

c.

chorionic villus sampling

b.

ultrasound

d.

fetal cardiac monitoring

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Prenatal diagnosis and treatment MSC: Application
76. A procedure that involves removing a sample of tissue from part of the placenta that is done 9 to 12 weeks into a pregnancy is called

a.

amniocentesis.

c.

ultrasound.

b.

chorionic villus sampling.

d.

maternal glucose test.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Prenatal diagnosis and treatment MSC: Factual
77. Why would a person be naturally concerned about undergoing an amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling during their pregnancy?

a.

Because a miscarriage is 1–2% more likely after these tests.

b.

Because the results from both tests take two to four weeks to obtain.

c.

Because they are both rather painful, while an ultrasound is noninvasive and painless.

d.

Because they both carry an unacceptable rate of “false positive” results.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Prenatal diagnosis and treatment MSC: Conceptual
78. Troy is very interested in the field of fetal medicine. Given this, he would most likely be fascinated by a book titled

a.

Afterbirth Care and You.

b.

The Benefits of Healthy Eating Before Pregnancy.

c.

Fixing Birth Defects Before Birth.

d.

The Importance of Childhood Inoculations.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Prenatal diagnosis and treatment MSC: Applications
79. What is the current status of the use of genetic engineering to help treat illnesses that are caused by defective genes?

a.

Genetic engineering is still illegal in the United States, though other countries are using it on a routine basis.

b.

Genetic engineering has been found useful for metabolic disorders, but only when employed prior to the fetal stage of prenatal development.

c.

Some successful applications of genetic engineering have been seen with older children.

d.

Genetic engineering has never been successfully used in animals or human beings, but the theories are sound and research is ongoing.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Influences on Prenatal Development

OBJ: Prenatal diagnosis and treatment MSC: Factual

80. How many stages of labor are there?



a.

1

c.

5

b.

3

d.

7

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Stages of labor MSC: Factual
81. Felicia is at the end of her pregnancy, and she is now in labor. She has been having contractions for about 18 hours, and her cervix is slowly dilating to approximately 10 centimeters. Which stage of labor is Felicia currently in?

a.

Stage one

c.

Stage three

b.

Stage two

d.

Stage four

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Stages of labor MSC: Application
82. Roz is in the process of giving birth to her daughter. The baby has made its way from the uterus into the vagina, and is currently being expelled from Roz’s body as Roz contracts her abdominal muscles. In which stage of labor is Roz?

a.

Stage one

c.

Stage three

b.

Stage two

d.

Stage four

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Stages of labor MSC: Application
83. Which of the stages of labor is the briefest, and involves only a few “pushes” to expel the placenta?

a.

Stage nine

c.

Stage five

b.

Stage seven

d.

Stage three

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Stages of labor MSC: Factual
84. Why would it be fair to say that physicians Grantly Dick-Read and Ferdinand Lamaze revolutionized approaches to childbirth?

a.

Because they advocated for a more natural approach to childbirth rather than viewing it as a “medical event.”

b.

Because together they developed the epidural procedure, which significantly reduced a woman’s pain during labor.

c.

Because they promoted the use of midwives and doulas over physicians and nurses to assist mothers in labor

d.

Because they developed the “fetal monitor,” which allowed for physicians to note when a child was in distress during labor.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Approaches to childbirth MSC: Conceptual
85. Wilma is afraid of the pain involved in delivering her baby. Are childbirth classes likely to help her?

a.

Yes, because women who take these courses may experience less tension, and thus may have less pain during the delivery.

b.

Yes, because women who take these courses qualify for painkilling medications they would not usually receive.

c.

No, because childbirth courses only make people more knowledgeable about the birthing process and can have no effect on pain.

d.

No, because individuals who know most about the birthing process experience the most pain.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Approaches to childbirth MSC: Application
86. Which of the following is NOT one of the physical changes that a woman is likely to experience after pregnancy?

a.

Her breasts may begin to produce milk.

b.

Her uterus becomes smaller.

c.

Her levels of female hormones may drop.

d.

Her control of her bowels may become compromised.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Adjusting to parenthood MSC: Factual
87. Roughly ________ of new mothers experience the “baby blues,” which may involve feelings of irritation and resentment, accompanied by crying spells.

a.

one-quarter

c.

one-half

b.

one-third

d.

two-thirds

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Adjusting to parenthood MSC: Factual
88. For 10 to 15% of new mothers, the baby blues extends into months of irritability, feelings of low self-worth and apathy, and sleep and appetite disturbances. This condition, called postpartum ________, can influence a child’s development if it persists.

a.

psychosis

c.

anxiety

b.

depression

d.

couvade

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Adjusting to parenthood MSC: Factual
89. Postpartum depression

a.

occurs in about 50 percent of new mothers.

b.

is more common following planned pregnancies than unplanned pregnancies.

c.

is a purely psychological phenomenon (i.e., has no physiological basis).

d.

may be reduced via breast-feeding.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Adjusting to parenthood MSC: Factual
90. While Jonah was making his way through his mother’s birth canal, his umbilical cord got wrapped around his neck. Thankfully this situation was resolved before Jonah developed _______, which would have involved a disruption of oxygenated blood to his brain.

a.

hypoxia

c.

aneurysm

b.

cerebral atrophy

d.

hemorrhage

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Birth complications MSC: Application
91. Which of the following conditions, seen in pregnant women, involves high blood pressure, proteins in the urine, and swelling in the extremities due to fluid retention?

a.

cephalopelvic disproportion

c.

irregular position

b.

preeclampsia

d.

prolapsed umbilical cord

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Birth complications MSC: Factual
92. Nora was born just after the 32nd week of pregnancy. According to your authors, she would be referred to as a ________ baby.

a.

preeclampsia

c.

preterm

b.

low birth weight

d.

viability

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Birth complications MSC: Application
93. If a child experiences many birth complications, and later experiences different types of family adversity, she is at an increased risk for developing _________.

a.

schizophrenia

c.

sarcoidosis

b.

Down syndrome

d.

obsessive-compulsive disorder

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Birth complications MSC: Factual
94. Born 39 weeks after conception, Sasha weighs in at around two pounds. Given this information, Sasha is best defined as

a.

full-term and normal birth weight.

c.

preterm and very low birth weight.

b.

preterm and normal birth weight.

d.

full-term and extremely low birth weight.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Birth complications MSC: Application
95. In order for a child to be described as having low birth weight, (s)he would have to weigh:

a.

less than 2,500 grams but more than 1,500 grams.

b.

less than 1,500 grams but more than 1,000 grams.

c.

less than 3,000 grams but more than 2,000 grams.

d.

less than 1,000 grams but more than 500 grams.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Birth complications MSC: Factual
96. Which of the following appears to be the most important factors that enhances the long-term outcomes for a small-for-date baby?

a.

having a supportive and stimulating home environment

b.

minimizing his/her exposure to environmental allergens

c.

delaying vaccinations until after the child is two years of age

d.

making sure that the child spends at least three weeks in an incubator following childbirth

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Birth complications MSC: Conceptual
97. Infant mortality rate is defined as the percentage of infants who die

a.

before birth.

c.

before their first birthday.

b.

during birth.

d.

before their second birthday.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Infant mortality MSC: Factual
98. Of the following countries, which has the highest rate of infant mortality?

a.

The United States of America

c.

Japan

b.

Turkey

d.

The Netherlands

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Infant mortality MSC: Factual
99. Why is it that the United States has among the highest rates of infant mortality despite having such widely available medical care?

a.

Because the United States does not mandate prenatal testing for all pregnant women.

b.

Because the United States has more babies with low birth weight than virtually all other developed nations.

c.

Because the United States has the highest rate of pregnant women who abuse alcohol and drugs during their pregnancy.

d.

Because the United States has the greatest level of toxins in its water and food supplies, thus leading to more prenatal complications.

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Labor and Delivery

OBJ: Infant mortality MSC: Conceptual
100. ________ involves mixing sperm and egg cells together in a Petri dish, and then placing several fertilized eggs inside the mother’s uterus. The hope is that they will become implanted in the uterine wall and lead to pregnancy.

a.

Gamete intrafallopian transfer

c.

Zygote intrafallopian transfer

b.

Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

d.

In-vitro fertilization

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Linking Research to Life

OBJ: Conception in the 21st century MSC: Factual



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