My Class Final Exam Study Guide Unit 1-7 2010 Multiple Choice

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My Class Final Exam Study Guide Unit 1-7 2010

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Organic chemistry is the study of

a. properties, changes, and relationships between energy and matter. b. the chemistry of living things. c. crystals and minerals. d. carbon-containing compounds.

____ 2. Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?

a. melting point b. boiling point c. volume d. density

____ 3. Which of the following is not a chemical change?

a. rusting b. igniting c. melting d. burning

____ 4. A physical change occurs when a

a. peach spoils. b. silver bowl tarnishes. c. bracelet turns your wrist green. d. glue gun melts a glue stick.

____ 5. Noble gases are in Group 18, and are best known because they are

a. unreactive. b. excellent conductors. c. rare. d. lanthanides.

____ 6. Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous mixture?

a. air b. orange juice c. raw milk d. marble

____ 7. Metalloids are often

a. unreactive. b. semiconductors. c. lanthanides. d. from outer space.

____ 8. All of the following are steps in the scientific method except

a. observing and recording data. b. forming a hypothesis. c. discarding data inconsistent with the hypothesis. d. developing a model based on experimental results.

____ 9. Which of the following observations is quantitative?

a. The liquid turns blue litmus paper red. b. The liquid boils at 100ºC. c. The liquid tastes bitter. d. The liquid is cloudy.

____ 10. Which of these is not an SI base unit?

a. kilogram b. second c. liter d. Kelvin

____ 11. The SI base units for length and time are

a. centimeter and second. b. meter and hour. c. centimeter and hour. d. meter and second.

____ 12. The density of aluminum is 2.70 g/cm3. What is the mass of a solid piece of aluminum with a volume of 1.50 cm3?

a. 0.556 g b. 1.80 g c. 4.05 g d. 4.20 g

____ 13. The density of pure diamond is 3.5 g/cm3. What is the volume of a diamond with a mass of 0.25 g?

a. 0.071 cm3 b. 0.875 cm3 c. 3.75 cm3 d. 14 cm3

____ 14. How many significant figures would the answer to the following calculation have?

3.475 ´ 1.97 + 2.4712 is
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

____ 15. If 63.5 g of copper (Cu) combine with 16 g of oxygen (O) to form the compound CuO, how many grams of oxygen will be needed to combine with the same amount of copper to form the compound CuO2?

a. 16 g b. 32 g c. 64 g d. 127 g

____ 16. According to the law of definite proportions, any two samples of KCl have

a. the same mass. b. slightly different molecular structures. c. the same melting point. d. the same ratio of elements.

____ 17. According to the law of conservation of mass, when sodium, hydrogen, and oxygen react to form a compound, the mass of the compound is ____ the sum of the masses of the individual elements.

a. equal to b. greater than c. less than d. either greater than or less than

____ 18. Experiments with cathode rays led to the discovery of the

a. proton. b. nucleus. c. neutron. d. electron.

____ 19. Whose series of experiments identified the nucleus of the atom?

a. Rutherford b. Dalton c. Chadwick d. Bohr

____ 20. In Rutherford's experiments, most of the particles

a. bounced back. b. passed through the foil. c. were absorbed by the foil. d. combined with the foil.

____ 21. A nuclear particle that has about the same mass as a proton, but with no electrical charge, is called a(n)

a. nuclide. b. neutron. c. electron. d. isotope.

____ 22. The nucleus of an atom has all of the following characteristics except that it

a. is positively charged. b. is very dense. c. contains nearly all of the atom's mass. d. contains nearly all of the atom's volume.

____ 23. Protons within a nucleus are attracted to each other by

a. the nuclear force. b. opposite charges. c. their energy levels. d. electron repulsion.

____ 24. An atom is electrically neutral because

a. neutrons balance the protons and electrons. b. nuclear forces stabilize the charges. c. the numbers of protons and electrons are equal. d. the numbers of protons and neutrons are equal.

____ 25. Nuclear forces exists because the particles in the nucleus are

a. oppositely charged. b. close together. c. highly energized. d. moving very fast.

____ 26. Most of the volume of an atom is occupied by the

a. nucleus. b. nuclides. c. electrons. d. protons.

____ 27. All isotopes of hydrogen contain

a. one neutron. b. two electrons. c. one proton. d. two nuclei.

____ 28. Chlorine has atomic number 17 and mass number 35. It has

a. 17 protons, 17 electrons, and 18 neutrons. b. 35 protons, 35 electrons, and 17 neutrons. c. 17 protons, 17 electrons, and 52 neutrons. d. 18 protons, 18 electrons, and 17 neutrons.

____ 29. Neon-22 contains 12 neutrons. It also contains

a. 12 protons. b. 22 protons. c. 22 electrons. d. 10 protons.

____ 30. The number of atoms in 1 mol of carbon is

a. 6.022 ´ 1022. b. 6.022 ´ 1023. c. 5.022 ´ 1022. d. 5.022 ´ 1023.

____ 31. The mass of 2.0 mol of oxygen atoms (atomic mass 16.00 amu) is

a. 16 g. b. 32 g. c. 48 g. d. 64 g.

____ 32. A quantum of electromagnetic energy is called a(n)

a. photon. b. electron. c. excited atom. d. orbital.

____ 33. The emission of electrons from metals that have absorbed photons is called the

a. interference effect. b. photoelectric effect. c. quantum effect. d. dual effect.

____ 34. A line spectrum is produced when an electron moves from one energy level

a. to a higher energy level. b. to a lower energy level. c. into the nucleus. d. to another position in the same sublevel.

____ 35. For an electron in an atom to change from the ground state to an excited state,

a. energy must be released. b. energy must be absorbed. c. radiation must be emitted. d. the electron must make a transition from a higher to a lower energy level.

____ 36. If electrons in an atom have the lowest possible energies, the atom is in the

a. ground state. b. inert state. c. excited state. d. radiation-emitting state.

____ 37. The main energy level that can hold only two electrons is the

a. first. b. second. c. third. d. fourth.

____ 38. The idea of arranging the elements in the periodic table according to their chemical and physical properties is attributed to

a. Mendeleev. b. Moseley. c. Bohr. d. Ramsay.

____ 39. The atomic number of lithium, the first element in Group 1, is 3. The atomic number of the second element in this group is

a. 4. b. 10. c. 11. d. 18.

____ 40. The electron configuration of aluminum, atomic number 13, is [Ne] 3s2 3p1. Aluminum is in Period

a. 2. b. 3. c. 6. d. 13.

____ 41. Hydrogen is placed separately from other elements in the periodic table because it

a. is a gas. b. does not exist as a free element in nature. c. has atomic number one. d. has many unique properties.

____ 42. In nature, the alkali metals occur as

a. elements. b. compounds. c. complex ions. d. gases.

____ 43. The elements in Group 1 are also known as the

a. alkali metals. b. rare-earth series. c. Period 1 elements. d. actinide series.

____ 44. Compared to the alkali metals, the alkaline-earth metals

a. are less reactive. b. have lower melting points. c. are less dense. d. combine more readily with nonmetals.

____ 45. Which represents a neutral atom acquiring an electron in a process where energy is released?

a. A + e + energy ® Ab. A + e ® A – energy c. A + e ® A + energy d. A + energy ® A + e

____ 46. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is the atom's

a. electron affinity. b. electron energy. c. electronegativity. d. ionization energy.

____ 47. Across a period in the periodic table, atomic radii

a. gradually decrease. b. gradually decrease, then sharply increase. c. gradually increase. d. gradually increase, then sharply decrease.

____ 48. The ionization energies for removing successive electrons from sodium are 496 kJ/mol, 4562 kJ/mol, 6912 kJ/mol, and 9544 kJ/mol. The great jump in ionization energy after the first electron is removed indicates that

a. sodium has four or five electrons. b. the atomic radius has increased. c. a d electron has been removed. d. the noble gas configuration has been reached.

____ 49. The force of attraction by Group 1 metals for their valence electrons is

a. weak. b. zero. c. strong. d. greater than that for inner shell electrons.

____ 50. Which of the following is an alkane?

a. propyne b. propane c. propene d. propyl bromide

____ 51. Which hydrocarbons have double covalent bonds?

a. alkanes b. alkenes c. alkynes d. aromatic hydrocarbons

____ 52. A mutual electrical attraction between the nuclei and valence electrons of different atoms that binds the atoms together is called a(n)

a. dipole. b. Lewis structure. c. chemical bond. d. London force.

____ 53. The electrons involved in the formation of a chemical bond are called

a. dipoles. b. s electrons. c. Lewis electrons. d. valence electrons.

____ 54. As independent particles, atoms are

a. at relatively high potential energy. b. at relatively low potential energy. c. very stable. d. part of a chemical bond.

____ 55. As atoms bond with each other, they

a. increase their potential energy, thus creating less-stable arrangements of matter. b. decrease their potential energy, thus creating less-stable arrangements of matter. c. increase their potential energy, thus creating more-stable arrangements of matter. d. decrease their potential energy, thus creating more-stable arrangements of matter.

____ 56. A solid produced by a chemical reaction in solution that separates from the solution is called

a. a precipitate. b. a reactant. c. a molecule. d. the mass of the product.

____ 57. The reaction Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) ® PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) is a

a. double-replacement reaction. b. synthesis reaction. c. decomposition reaction. d. combustion reaction.

____ 58. A precipitate forms in a double-replacement reaction when

a. hydrogen gas reacts with a metal. b. positive ions combine with negative ions. c. water boils out of the solution. d. a gas escapes.

____ 59. What is the balanced equation when aluminum reacts with copper(II) sulfate?

a. Al + Cu2S ® Al2S + Cu b. 2Al + 3CuSO4 ® Al2(SO4)3 + 3Cu c. Al + CuSO4 ® AlSO4 + Cu d. 2Al + Cu2SO4 ® Al2SO4 + 2Cu

____ 60. Magnesium bromide + chlorine yield

a. Mg and BrCl. b. MgCl and Br2. c. MgBrCl. d. Mg(Cl)2 and Br2.

____ 61. In the word equation, sodium oxide + water ® sodium hydroxide, the formula for

sodium hydroxide is represented by

a. Na2OH. b. NaOH. c. NaO2. d. Na2O.

____ 62. Which word equation represents the reaction that produces water from hydrogen and oxygen?

a. Water is produced from hydrogen and oxygen. b. Hydrogen plus oxygen yields water. c. H2 + O2 ® water. d. Water can be separated into hydrogen and oxygen.

____ 63. How would oxygen be represented in the formula equation for the reaction of methane and oxygen to yield carbon dioxide and water?

a. oxygen b. O c. O2 d. O3

____ 64. Which of the following is a formula equation for the formation of carbon dioxide from carbon and oxygen?

a. Carbon plus oxygen yields carbon dioxide. b. C + O2 ® CO2 c. CO2 ® C + O2 d. 2C + O ® CO2

____ 65. In the chemical equation 2Mg(s) + O2(g) ? 2MgO(s),

a. Mg represents the product magnesium. b. the reaction yields magnesium. c. Mg represents the reagent magnesium. d. O2 represents the product oxygen gas.

____ 66. In the equation 2Al(s) + 3Fe(NO3)2(aq) ® 3Fe(s) + 2Al(NO3)3(aq), iron has been replaced by

a. nitrate. b. water. c. aluminum. d. nitrogen.

____ 67. In the reaction represented by the equation 2Al2O3 ® 4Al + 3O2, what is the mole ratio of aluminum to oxygen?

a. 10:6 b. 3:4 c. 2:3 d. 4:3

____ 68. For the reaction represented by the equation 2H2 + O2® 2H2O, how many moles of water can be produced from 6.0 mol of oxygen?

a. 2.0 mol b. 6.0 mol c. 12 mol d. 18 mol

Use the table below to answer the following questions.



Atomic Mass























































____ 69. For the reaction represented by the equation 2Na + 2H2O ® 2NaOH + H2, how many grams of sodium hydroxide are produced from 3.0 mol of sodium with an excess of water?

a. 40. g b. 80. g c. 120 g d. 240 g

____ 70. Ozone, O3, is produced by the reaction represented by the following equation:

What mass of ozone will form from the reaction of 2.0 g of NO2 in a car's exhaust and excess oxygen?

a. 1.1 g O3 b. 1.8 g O3 c. 2.1 g O3 d. 4.2 g O3

____ 71. For the reaction represented by the equation 2Na + 2H2O ® 2NaOH + H2, how many grams of hydrogen are produced if 120. g of sodium and 80. g of water are available?

a. 4.5 g b. 45 g c. 80. g d. 200 g

____ 72. For the reaction represented by the equation 2Na + Cl2 ® 2NaCl, how many grams of sodium chloride can be produced from 500. g each of sodium and chlorine?

a. 112 g b. 319 g c. 409 g d. 824 g

____ 73. For the reaction represented by the equation SO3 + H2O ® H2SO4, how many grams of sulfuric acid can be produced from 200. g of sulfur trioxide and 100. g of water?

a. 100. g b. 200. g c. 245 g d. 285 g

____ 74. Which reactant controls the amount of product formed in a chemical reaction?

a. excess reactant b. mole ratio c. composition reactant d. limiting reactant

____ 75. When the limiting reactant in a chemical reaction is completely used, the

a. excess reactants begin combining. b. reaction slows down. c. reaction speeds up. d. reaction stops.

____ 76. For the reaction represented by the equation SO3 + H2O ® H2SO4, calculate the percentage yield if 500. g of sulfur trioxide react with excess water to produce 575 g of sulfuric acid.

a. 82.7% b. 88.3% c. 91.2% d. 93.9%

____ 77. For the reaction represented by the equation Cl2 + 2KBr ® 2KCl + Br2, calculate the percentage yield if 200. g of chlorine react with excess potassium bromide to produce 410. g of bromine.

a. 73.4% b. 82.1% c. 91.0% d. 98.9%

____ 78. For the reaction represented by the equation CH4 + 2O2 ® 2H2O + CO2, calculate the percentage yield of carbon dioxide if 1000. g of methane react with excess oxygen to produce 2300. g of carbon dioxide.

a. 83.88% b. 89.14% c. 92.76% d. 96.78%

____ 79. Which pair of elements is most likely to form an ionic compound?

a. Mg and F b. S and O c. O and Cl d. Na and Al

____ 80. Which compound is likely to conduct electricity when in aqueous solution?

a. phosphorous trichloride b. carbon dioxide c. calcium chloride d. none of these

____ 81. Compounds which are characterized as covalent are generally made up of elements found

in which part of the Periodic Table?

a. uuper left b. lower left c. lower right d. upper right

____ 82. Predict the most common ion formed by barium.

a. Ba3+ b. Ba- c. Ba2+ d. Ba+

____ 83. The concept of “polarity” is due to


one atom of a bonded pair of atoms exerting a greater attractive force on the shared



atoms that are bonded together but have unequal numbers of lone pair electrons.


the number of electrons shared by any pair of atoms.


similarities in attractions for shared electrons when the electronic and molecular geometries are the same.

____ 84. Which covalent bond is the most polar?

a. H S b. H H c. O H d. H N

____ 85. Rank the following in terms of increasing elec-


a. Na, N, O, Mg, F b. Na, Mg, N, O, F c. F, O, N, Mg, Na d. F, O, N, Na, Mg

____ 86. How many molecules are there in 5.0 g of methyl alcohol, CH3OH?

a. 9.4 1022 b. 3.0 1024 c. 3.6 1024 d. 3.8 1024

____ 87. What is the percentage composition of CF4?

a. 20% C, 80% F b. 13.6% C, 86.4% F c. 16.8% C, 83.2% F d. 81% C, 19% F

____ 88. What is the empirical formula for a compound that is 31.9% potassium, 28.9% chlorine, and 39.2% oxygen?

a. KClO2 b. KClO3 c. K2Cl2O3 d. K2Cl2O5

____ 89. What is the empirical formula for a compound that is 43.6% phosphorus and 56.4% oxygen?

a. P3O7 b. PO3 c. P2O3 d. P2O5

____ 90. For electromagnetic radiation, c (the speed of light) equals

a. frequency minus wavelength. b. frequency plus wavelength. c. frequency divided by wavelength. d. frequency times wavelength.

____ 91. The B—F bond in BF3 (electronegativity for B is 2.0; electronegativity for F is 4.0) is

a. polar covalent. b. ionic. c. nonpolar covalent. d. metallic.

____ 92. The electron configuration of nitrogen is 1s2 2s2 2p3. How many more electrons does nitrogen need to satisfy the octet rule?

a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 8

____ 93. What is the correct Lewis structure for hydrogen chloride, HCl?

a. A b. B c. C d. D

____ 94. In nuclear chemistry, an atom is referred to as a(n)

a. nuclide. b. nucleon. c. nucleus. d. alpha particle.

____ 95. What does the 101 in represent?

a. the mass number b. the atomic number c. the nuclide number d. the number of neutrons

____ 96. Mass defect is the difference between the mass of

a. a nucleus and its atom. b. a neutron and a proton. c. an atom and the sum of the masses of its nucleons. d. an atom and the sum of the masses of its constituent particles.

____ 97. Which of the following is the correct relationship between mass and energy?

a. E = mc2 b. E = mc c. E2 = mc d. E = m2c

____ 98. The nuclear binding energy is released when a nucleus

a. is bombarded. b. divides. c. is formed from its constituent particles. d. decays.

____ 99. In a nuclear reaction, unstable nuclei change their number of protons and neutrons,

a. give off large amounts of energy, and increase their stability. b. give off small amounts of energy, and increase their stability. c. give off large amounts of energy, and decrease their stability. d. give off small amounts of energy, and decrease their stability.

____ 100. Balance the following equation: + + ____

a.  b.  c.  d. 

____ 101. The energy released in a nuclear reaction comes from

a. electrons. b. bonds. c. positrons. d. the binding energy of the nucleus.

____ 102. Which of the following forms of radiation has the greatest penetrating power?

a. alpha particles b. beta particles c. gamma rays d. positrons

____ 103. Which of the following lists ranks nuclear radiation from most massive to least massive?

a. alpha, beta, and gamma b. beta, gamma, and alpha c. gamma, alpha, and beta d. gamma, beta, and alpha

____ 104. Elements in which the d-sublevel is being filled have the properties of

a. metals. b. nonmetals. c. metalloids. d. gases.

____ 105. For each successive electron removed from an atom, the ionization energy

a. increases. b. decreases. c. remains the same. d. shows no pattern.

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